NR 511 Week 6 Quiz (10 out of 10 Points)
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$25.00
Institution | NR 511 Differential Diagnosis and Primary Care Practicum |
Contributor | Heneli |
- Question: A 72-year-old unmarried, sexually active man, presents to the clinic with complaints of hesitancy, urgency, and occasional uncontrolled dribbling. Although the nurse practitioner suspects benign prostatic hyperplasia, what else should the differential diagnosis include?
- Question: A 63-year-old man presents to your office with hematuria, hesitancy, and dribbling. Digital rectal examination (DRE) reveals a smooth, moderately enlarged prostate. The client's prostate-specific antigen (PSA) is 1.2. What is the most appropriate management strategy at this time?
- Question: A 32-year-old male appears with a rapid onset of unilateral scrotal pain radiating up to the groin and flank. The nurse practitioner is trying to differentiate between epididymitis and testicular torsion. Which test should be the provider’s first choice?
- Question: In teaching a patient how to do a testicular self-examination, which of the following should the clinician advise? Make an appointment if you note any hard lumps directly on the testicle, regardless of whether they are tender
- Question: A patient is being treated for erectile dysfuncation. The patient is morally obese and is also being treated for a coagulopathy. Which of the following medications would be contraindicated?
- Question: A 32-year-old male presents with complaints of a scrotal mass; however, the scrotum is so edematous that it is difficult to assess. How would the nurse practitioner (NP) best determine whether the condition is a hernia or a hydrocele?
- Question: A male patient presents to the clinic for evaluation of infertility. Subjectively, the patient complains of pain and fullness of the testes and states, My testicles feel like a bag of worms. Physical examination, the nurse practitioner notes tortuous veins posterior to and above the testes that extend up into the external inguinal ring. Based on the preceding assessment, the nurse practitioner refers the patient to urology with which diagnosis?
- Question: A 62-year-old male has a low International Prostate Symptom Score for lower urinary tract symptoms associated with his benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH).The nurse practitioner should recommend:
- Question: A 15-year-old male comes to the clinic in acute distress with belly pain. When obtaining his history, the nurse practitioner (NP) finds that he fell off his bike this morning and has vomited. Upon closer examination, the NP determines the belly pain to be left-sided groin pain or pain in his left testicle. He is afebrile and reports no dysuria. Which of the following diagnosis is most likely?
- Question: A patient’s chief complaint is pain and heaviness in the scrotum. The nurse practitioner notes swelling of the testes, along with warm scrotal skin. Which of the following diagnosis is most probable?
Instituition / Term | |
Term | Year 2022 |
Institution | NR 511 Differential Diagnosis and Primary Care Practicum |
Contributor | Heneli |