Question: I understand that I must document a minimum of 125 clinical hours in approved categories by 11:59 p.m. MT Wednesday of Week 8 to pass this course.
Question: I understand that it is my responsibility to enter my clinical encounters weekly into eLogs.
Question: I understand that by 11:59 p.m. MT at the end of Week 4, I must have a minimum of 50 hours of clinical encounters and 4 clinical SOAP notes documented in eLogs to progress in the course.
Question: I understand the only approved categories for alternative hours are lab review, telephone management and prescription refills. Any other alternative hours categories must be approved by my course instructor prior to entering in eLogs.
Question: I understand that inaccurate or dishonest representation of clinical hours and experiences will result in failing the course and being referred to the Professional Review Committee.
Question: I understand that it is my responsibility to view preceptor evaluations in eLogs and assure my preceptor has completed my midterm evaluation by
Question: I understand that the SOAP note for Weeks 1-7 that is part of the case study discussion will not be accepted after 11:59 p.m. MT Sunday at the end of each week and will result in a 33 point deduction.
Question: Match the following SUBJECTIVE/OBJECTIVE
Question: Upon graduation from the FNP program, you will be considered an expert advanced practice nurse.
Question: The purpose of the FNP program is to guarantee that you will pass the Board Certification Exam.
Question: The history of present illness (HPI) should attempt to explain the chief complaint (CC) and its characteristics.
Question: Specificity- ability of a test to correctly identify a specific condition
Question: During a patient encounter, the nurse practitioner is obligated to address every concern or complaint at that visit.
Question: Understanding the levels of office visit billing is important to you as a student because this information should be reflected in your log of patient encounters and is subject to review by faculty to ensure that you are seeing patients of all ages and complexities.
Question: Medical billing is the process of communicating with payers about which procedures were performed and why.
Question: The written history and physical serves several purposes. Which of the following is a purpose of the history and physical?
Question: ICD-10 codes are shorthand for a patient’s diagnosis.
Question: When billing in a fee-for-service model, Medicare and most insurance companies require a ICD-10 code that can explain the reason for the CPT code.
Question: The components of the E&M code include the place of service, the type of service, and the patient’s gender.
Question: Suzy Q. was a patient of yours in 2010. She moved to Florida and briefly returns to reestablish care at your office. For billing and coding purposes, is Suzy Q. considered a new or an established patient?
Question: Tommy H. wants to be seen for a sore throat today. You look at his chart and notice that the last time he was seen in your office was in 2016 by your partner. Is Tommy H. considered a new or established patient?
Question: The complexity of a 99202 office visit is higher than a 99204.
Question: The three components that determine risk based on E&M codes are _____.
Question: The three elements needed to determine the level of complexity of a visit include risk, data, and _____.
Question: If your documentation does not contain all of the elements that support that level of service, you are committing fraud and can be subject to sanctions and repayment of fees and fines.
Question: Match the following items:
Question: The key components to effective health promotion are to screen for risk factors and intervene when necessary.
Question: Identify the following risk factors as modifiable or nonmodifiable using M and N, respectively.
Question: Health literacy can be described as the degree to which individuals have the capacity to obtain, process, and understand basic information and services needed to make appropriate healthcare decision.
Question: There are six core clinical courses in this FNP program.
Question: A well-rounded clinical experience should include roughly 10% of pediatric and women’s health patients, each of the total number of patients seen by the end of your rotations.
Question: A family practice office for all five of your clinical rotations will guarantee that you will gain the required pediatric exposure.
Question: Students may be held from an anticipated clinical site if faculty determines that the student has not seen enough patients of low, medium, high, or very high complexity.
Question: A student may follow a provider who does hospital rounds on their patients for a maximum of _____.
Question: Observation or shadowing the preceptor should be counted as part of the student’s clinical hours.
Question: A student sees 550 patients for the entire practicum experience. Of these visits, the student sees the following number of patients according to age group. This is an example of a well-rounded clinical experience.
Question: Which of the following is not an approved “alternative hours” category?
Question: A student “forgets” to document the pediatric encounters for NR511. The student successfully passed the course and is now in NR601. Because the student passed the course, it is ok to go back and update the clinical log to reflect the missed documented encounters.
Question: Students are required to submit one written SOAP note from the clinical setting, which can be a copy of the notes that the student entered in the EMR.
Question: Sally’s preceptor, Dr. Bones, is unexpectedly ill. His nurse practitioner offers to allow the student to work with her for the day. Dr. Bones is the only preceptor on file with the student’s practicum coordinator (PC) for that class. Because it is only one day, the student can rotate with the substitute provider as long as the student notifies the course instructor.
Question: Dyspnea is one of the more common complaints in primary care that can be caused by diverse health problems. In the majority of cases, dyspnea is a results of a cardiac or pulmonary decompensation. Which etiology is not associated with cardiac or pulmonary decompensation?
Question: Dyspnea can be classified into flow or volume disorders, and the underlying cause can be from an intrathorax or an extrathorax problem. Which of the following is an example of a flow extrathorax problem?
Question: The following are all essential in gathering your history of a patient with a chief complaint of dyspnea, except _____.
Question: Which of the following is not a test that can be used in the evaluation of the patient who is dyspenic?
Question: Match the rash with characteristic.
Foods that have been shown in clinical trials to be associated with the development of acne are _____.
Question: Every patient with acne needs to use a good cleanser with a retinoid or benzoyl peroxide.
Question: Treatment of moderate acne may include the use of topical and oral antibiotic with a retinoid.
Question: Patients should be referred to a dermatologist for treatment of acne with Accutane.
Question: Match the type of tinea with its location.
Question: Warts are caused by the _____.
Question: Which is not a treatment for warts?
Question: Treatment for a nonfluctuant abscess should include incision and drainage (I&D).
Question: Poison ivy is contagious and can be spread from touching the affected area.
Question: Alkaline chemical injuries are more serious and damaging than acidic injuries to the eye.
Question: Fluorosceine staining is a method used to differentiate the types of conjunctivitis.
Question: Subconjunctival hemorrhage can result from a patient straining to have a bowel movement.
Question: Select the conditions that would warrant an ER referral.
-80x80.JPG "NR 511 Week 8 Reflection: June 2020v2")
